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Historical
Commentary on the Gospel of Mark
Chapter 1
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| 1: The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God. 2: As it is written in Isaiah the prophet, "Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, who shall prepare thy way; 3: the voice of one crying in the wilderness: Prepare the way of the Lord, make his paths straight -- " 4: John the baptizer appeared in the wilderness, preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins. 5: And there went out to him all the country of Judea, and all the | people of Jerusalem; and they were baptized by him in the river Jordan, confessing their sins. 6: Now John was clothed with camel's hair, and had a leather girdle around his waist, and ate locusts and wild honey. 7: And he preached, saying, "After me comes he who is mightier than I, the thong of whose sandals I am not worthy to stoop down and untie. 8: I have baptized you with water; but he will baptize you with the Holy Spirit." |
| 1: The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God. |
| v1: Ehrman (1996, p72-5) makes a strong case that the phrase "Son of God" in v1 is a later interpolation. See also Head (1991). Adella Yarbro Collins (1995) concludes in her review article that the field is evenly split on the matter. It is important to keep in mind, as Koester once pointed out, that texts are generally far more variable before they are canonized. Several exegetes have argued, based on the grammar of v2 and other arguments, that the beginning of the Gospel has been lost (see discussion in Willker 2004, p9-10). | |||||||
v1:
Dewey (2004) observes of the text of Mark:
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v1:
The term "gospel" (euangelion) seems to have been in
general
use as part of a standard phrase arche tou euangeliou (the
beginning
of the gospel) known from proclamations and inscriptions from the time
of Augustus. The phrase "Son of God" (theou hyios) was also used
of Roman emperors (Helms 1988, p28-9). Craig Evans (2000, p69-70)
offers a translation of one such
inscription,
the Priene Inscription:
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| v1: The writer of Mark avoids the Greek verb euangelizomai ("to proclaim the gospel"), common in Matthew and Luke. | |||||||
| v1:
Does the opening phrase "Gospel of Jesus Christ" mean the Gospel about Jesus, or the Gospel preached by Jesus? Or some
combination of both? Weeden (1971) along with other exegetes, argues
that for the writer of Mark, Jesus is
the Gospel. |
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v1:
Mack (1995) writes:
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v1:
Robert Grant (1963) comments on the
writer's style:
Edward Hobbs (1998) in a post on B-Greek, observes:
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v1:
George Aichele (2003) writes:
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v1:
"Jesus." Jesus (IHSOUS) is
the Greek form of the Hebrew name Joshua
and was used to translate that name throughout the Greek version of the
OT, the Septuagint. Many exegetes have commented on the fact that the
Savior of the Christians had the name of Moses' successor. Robert Kraft
(1992) writes:
As Kraft points out, Exodus 23:20, which the writer of Mark uses in the very next verse, Mark 1:2, contains a reference that links the name Joshua to the name of God:
Kraft also notes that the link between Jesus and Joshua was made by the early Christians. For example, Justin Martyr, in his Dialogue with Trypho, argues
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v1:
Aichele (2003) observes:
In both Paul and Mark, arch. tou euaggeliou denotes a beginning. |
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v1: "Son of God." In Judaism
before, during, and after the time of Jesus there was a heresy of "two
powers" in heaven that was opposed by later rabbis, and which
Christians were accused of. This consisted of interpreting scripture to
say that there was a principal angel or entity in Heaven that was equal
to God. This "heresy" was common enough that those who advocated it did
not feel the need to justify their beliefs, indicating that they were
writing to audiences comfortable with such beliefs. James McGrath
(2001) writes:
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| 2: As it is written in Isaiah the prophet, "Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, who shall prepare thy way; |
|
v2:
Although the writer of Mark is often accused of "error" in reference to
the scriptures at this point (the citation is from Malachi rather than
Isaiah), as some commentators have noted, the first two verses may form
a
complete statement:
with reference to Isaiah 40:9:
"Good tidings" is of course euangelion (gospel) in Greek. |
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v2:
Helms (1997, p3) points out that this verse is built out of
Exodus
23:20 and a paraphrase of Malachi. 3:1.
taken directly from the Greek of the Septaugint version of
Exodus:
The passage in its entirety reads:
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v2:
Malachi 3:1 says:
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| v2:
"the way." "The way" is an important motif in Mark. Things
are always happening "on the way." Isa 35:8, which appears to lie
behind many of the healings in Mark, refers to "the holy way." |
| 3: the voice of one crying in the wilderness: Prepare the way of the Lord, make his paths straight -- " |
| v3: the first thirteen words are taken from the Septaugint Isaiah 40:3, but Mark changes the last two words, "our God," to "him." | |
| v1-3: the writer of Mark ensures that the reader knows Jesus is the Son of God. The "messianic secret" is a secret only from other characters in the story; the reader is in on it at the beginning. |
| 4: John the baptizer appeared in the wilderness, preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins. |
v4:
Mark's claim that John taught "a baptism of repentance for the
forgiveness
of sins" is directly contradicted by the Jewish historian Josephus:
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| 5: And there went out to him all the country of Judea, and all the people of Jerusalem; and they were baptized by him in the river Jordan, confessing their sins. |
| v5: the Jordan is an important location in the Elijah-Elisha Cycle in 2 Kings 2 and 2 Kings 5. The writer of Mark will make extensive use of the Elijah-Elisha Cycle in his gospel. | |
| v5:
McVann (1994) argues that, based on the importance of baptism in the
Gospel of Mark, the Gospel was composed for a baptismal context. Many
exegetes have seen the gospel as having an initiatory flavor. |
| 6: Now John was clothed with camel's hair, and had a leather girdle around his waist, and ate locusts and wild honey. |
| v6: Mark has presented John as an Elijah figure with a leather belt (zonen dematinen) around his waist (peri ten osphyn autou), using the same language the Septaugint uses to describe Elijah, a hairy man, girt with a leather belt (zonen dematinen) around his waist (ten osphyn autou) (Helms 1988, p35). Zech 13:4 states that a hairy mantle is the sign of a prophet. | |
| v6: Price (2003, p44-5) points out that "hairiness" (camel's hair) is an ancient symbol of the sun's rays, found in numerous biblical characters (Samson, Elijah, Esau). Arthur Drews (1998) and Joseph Campbell (1962, 107) both link John to Oannes, a name for the Babylonian god Enki who was responsible for purification through water rituals (compare Greek Ionnaes, Latin Johannes, Hebrew Yohanan, English John). While this does not sunder John the Baptist from history, it does show how deep the roots of this character may go. |
| 8: I have baptized you with water; but he will baptize you with the Holy Spirit." |
|
v8:
Meier (1994, p106) observes the clear link to Isaiah 61:1:
In the next verse the prophet declares "to proclaim the year of the LORD's favor." In the Gospel of Mark Jesus' ministry lasts one year, at least by some calculations. |
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| v8: both J.J. Collins (1995, p205-6) and Tomson (2001, 130-1) observe the remarkable affinities between the Dead Sea Scroll labeled 4Q521 and the career of Jesus. 4Q521, an expansion of Isaiah 61, refers to the anointed one who shall revive the dead and preach salvation to the meek. Traditions of a healing prophet who preaches salvation and has the power to raise the dead predate Jesus in Judaism. |
| Historical
Commentary
The question of the historicity of the
relationship
between Jesus and John the Baptist will be discussed in the next
pericope. Santiago Guijarro (2003, p1), arguing that Mark is writing an
ancient
biography, sees this pericope as intended as a prologue:
Josephus
scholar Steve Mason (1992) gives another view of the
issue.
Scholars generally see this section as a creation of the writer. Responding to arguments that this pericope existed in a pre-Markan form, Gundry (1993, p40) asks "What function could it have had apart from Mark's book?" Tolbert (1989, p307), argues that the Gospel of Mark is the result of creative effort on the part of its author, and not the end product of development in an oral tradition. Standaert (1978) and Smith (1999) apparently concur, arguing that the prologue follows the conventions of Greco-Roman tragedy, in which an actor comes out on stage at the beginning to familiarize the audience with the story. The actor plays the role of a messenger, often from the gods. After the introduction he disappears. Typically, while the audience is aware of what is going on, the characters remain in the dark until the recognition scene at the end. Because of the impossibility of knowing how to handle the first three verses of Mark, no chiasm has been constructed for this pericope. |
| 9: In those
days Jesus
came from Nazareth of Galilee and was baptized by John in the
Jordan.
10: And when he came up out of the water, immediately he saw the
heavens
opened and the Spirit descending |
upon him like a dove; 11: and a voice came from heaven, "Thou art my beloved Son; with thee I am well pleased." |
| 9: In those days Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee and was baptized by John in the Jordan. |
|
v9: "Nazareth." The problem of Jesus' origin in Nazareth is really two problems. First, what does the author of Mark say is the relationship between Jesus and Nazareth? Second, was there a village by that name existing in the first century? The first question is the more easily resolved of the two.
Here in
Mark
1:9 "Nazareth" is apparently a later addition to the text. Second, this is the only use of the word "Nazareth" in Mark; all other usages are a Greek word, nazarhnos, generally translated as "Nazarene." "Nazarene" can mean either a sectarian designation, or "of (the location of) Nazara," but it cannot mean "of Nazareth." How the ending "th" became attached to it is a mystery that no one has yet solved. The key idea here, as a friend pointed out, is that if the writer of Mark really thought that Jesus was from Nazareth, why does he keep saying that he is "of Nazara?" In Mark 2:1 the writer identifies Capernaum as Jesus' home, not Nazareth. This identification of Capernaum is supported by Matthew 4:13: "Leaving Nazareth, he went and lived in Capernaum, which was by the lake in the area of Zebulun and Naphtali--." Why else would Capernaum have appeared here, if Matthew did not understand that Jesus had a home there? Against this Painter (1999) argues that the use of en oiko -- "at home" in Mark 2:1 is supposed to reflect back to Mark 1:29, where the home in question is that of Peter's mother-in-law, not that of Jesus. Yet the writer has the news of Jesus' being "at home" reported, as if his connection with the place were known. This implies that we should read 2:1 as referring to Jesus' home, not the home of Peter's mother-in-law. Further, the writer of Mark does not clarify whether Nazareth or Capernaum was Jesus' home, indicating that perhaps he did not write "Nazareth." This is supported by Zindler's (2000) observation that Capernaum should be read as "Home of the Paraclete," a signifying name that would well suit Jesus' mission. It should also be noted that one editor of Matthew removed all the references to nazarhnos in his original source. This is usually done when terms were found to be obscure. If the writer of Mark had mentioned nazaret at 1:9, would the editor of Matthew have removed the references to nazarhnos from the text? Had both terms been present in the text, nazaret would have explained nazarhnos. Yet another strike against the presence of "Nazareth" in this verse originally is that the writer of Mark never explains or apologizes for the identification of Nazareth as Jesus' hometown in his gospel (compare Matthew 2:23: "and he went and lived in a town called Nazareth. So was fulfilled what was said through the prophets: 'He will be called a Nazarene'.") Further, the usage of "Nazareth" is apparently untypical of
the writer's style. Gundry (1993, p388) notes that in Mark's entire
gospel only in v9 does he place a geographical location in a larger
context (Nazareth....of Galilee). A clue that this passage has been redacted is that the writer of Mark characteristically uses the name "Jesus" with the definite article -- "the Jesus" -- but here in v9 there is no definite article, perhaps indicating that the text has been tampered with. Gundry (1993, p47), however, argues in a very strained way that the definite article was dropped to emphasize "Nazareth" and "Galilee" in v9 against the Jerusalemites and Judeans in v5. Additionally, Andrew Criddle (2004) points out that some Greek lexicons say that the first appearance of a character in a narrative may lack a definite article. However, Jesus has already appeared in v1 above. In sum, the historical fact of Jesus' origin in Nazareth
cannot
be
deduced
from this passage (or anywhere else in Mark, since the place-name
"Nazareth"
is never used). "Nazareth" only crops up later in the tradition,
in the gospels of Luke and Matthew, both of whom copied Mark, and in
John,
who also appears to have known Mark's gospel. Here in Mark 1:9, its
only appearance in the Gospel, it appears to have been interpolated. "Nazara" was understood to mean "truth" in certain quarters in
the second century. The Gospel of Philip 47 says:
The problem of Nazareth's existence in the first century is more ambiguous. The Old Testament and Josephus, the Jewish historian who lead armies in Galilee and whose base was a scant few miles away, along with other ancient writers, never mention Nazareth. Archaeological work (summarized in Reed 2000, 131-2) has uncovered evidence of human activities, but no evidence of habitation. Perhaps it never existed, but then again, perhaps it was so small it never left any mark on history. |
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v9:
parallels v5 (adapted from Camery-Hoggat 1992, p9):
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v9:
Jesus simply appears, without parents or antecedents. Many exegetes
interpret the Christology of Mark as Adoptionist (Jesus is a human
adopted as God's son) as opposed to Matthew and Luke, who posit Jesus
as the Son of God from the beginning. Brenda Schildgen (1999),
commenting on the silences in Mark, and the early lack of interest in,
and low reputation of, the Gospel of Mark among the Patristic Fathers,
notes:
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| v9: The
Gospel of Mark is pre-eminently a narrative. Moderns tend to view
narratives as essentially story-oriented in nature, whether fictional
or not, but as Blount (1993) points out, the ancients saw narratives as
a
form of argument. The first century teacher of rhetoric Quntillian, for
example, defined narrative as useful for persuading, whether it has
actually occurred, or is only supposed to have occurred. |
| 10: And when he came up out of the water, immediately he saw the heavens opened and the Spirit descending upon him like a dove; |
v10:
Probably related to Isaiah, a favorite author of both the early
Christians and the writers of the Dead Sea Scrolls (Donahue and
Harrington 2002, p65;
Meier 1994, p107). Isaiah 64:1 says:
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v10:
Another possible source (Hoskyns and Davey, 1931) is Psalm 91:4
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| v10: The Marcosians and perhaps certain other gnostic groups saw the "dove" here as representing "God." In Jewish alphabetical numerology, the Greek letters for 'dove' total 801, same as for "alpha" (1) plus "omega" (800) (Ehrman 1996, p142). The underlying numerological meaning may well be a pointer to the constructed nature of the passage. | |||
v10: The
writer of Mark uses the Greek preposition eis (into) while Matthew and Luke
use epi (upon) to describe
how the Spirit comes to Jesus. Robert Fowler (1996) pointing out that
the understanding of the later writers is often read back in Mark,
observes:
Fowler also points out that in Mark the Spirit is not specified as Holy, though Matthew and Luke are careful to make that clear. |
| 11: and a voice came from heaven, "Thou art my beloved Son; with thee I am well pleased." |
v11:
taken partly from Psalm 2:7, a coronation psalm:
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v11:
Price points out that v11 is cobbled together from 3 OT texts,
including
Psalm 2, Isaiah 42:1, and Gen 22:12 (LXX):
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v11:
Helms (1988, 47) points out that for the ancient Hebrews the
anointed
King was understood as the "Son of God." Not only does Psalm 2:7, a
coronation
psalm, imply this, but it is also found in 2 Sam 7:14, where the Lord
promises
to David:
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v11:
Helms (1988, p32) suggests that this verse is based on Ezekiel
1:1
mediated through the Testament of the Twelve Patriarchs:
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| v11: is frequently seen by exegetes as signaling that Mark believed Jesus became God's son through baptism by John (for example, Sanders 1995, p244). | |||
v11:
Darrell Doughty (2000) writes:
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| v11:
Joel Marcus (1995) points out that it is odd that, if Jesus really
heard this voice, we don't hear him refer to himself as "Son of God"
more often in the Gospel. If Jesus presumably told this to his
followers, why do they not show more awareness of it? |
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| v11:
in Galatian 4 Paul refers to believers as God's sons by adoption, into
whom he sent the spirit of his son as proof. |
| Historical
Commentary
This pericope, like so many passages in
Mark, is built out of
the Old Testament, as evidenced by v10 and v11. At the structural level, Jesus' location in Galilee at the
start of this
narrative
is
determined not by history but by the writer's literary dependence on
the
Elijah-Elisha
narrative in the OT, and the connection to Isa 9:1. Brodie (2000)
writes:
This dependence on the Elijah-Elisha cycle is also reflected
in
Mark's
more chronological feel. William Sanday (1876), discussing Papias'
comments
that Mark had written out of order, noted:
Verses 10 and 11, the focus of the passage, are supernatural in nature and automatically ahistorical. Many exegetes see the title "Son of God" as a later Christian invention, yet another strike against this passage being historical. The tight relationship of the events here, in the laconic style characteristic of the writer of Mark, signals that v9 is ahistorical as well. Verses 10 and 11 are natural follow-ons from v9; without them there is no reason to mention the baptism of John. Hence, v9 stands or falls with those verses. The remaining major historical question is v9. Did John baptize Jesus? Most exegetes concede that the scene itself is not historical, but they argue that it may contain a historical kernel that records either a baptism by John, or a relationship with John. One problem with these positions is their complete subjectivity: absent a clear historical account, all of the evidence of Jesus' relationships with John are contained in what are generally acknowledged to be fictions from the hand of the writer of Mark. One may "feel" there is a historical kernel there, but no evidence exists to support that subjectivity -- other than the appearance of John the Baptist as a bare fact.As noted above in v4, Josephus flatly contradicts the idea that John's baptism was for remission of sins. Further, Acts 19:1-6 contains the strange tale of Paul meeting disciples of John the Baptist in Ephesus:
The writer of Acts records a situation in which disciples of John are unaware of Jesus' relationship to John. It is hard to see this as anything other than historical in the time of the writer of Acts, which brings into doubt any connection between John and Jesus. Steve Mason (Fire) concurs:
The authentic Pauline epistles do not mention John the Baptist either. Earl Doherty (1999) notes:
See the Excursus on Mark and Paul at the end of Chapter 10 for another point of view on possible links between Mark and Paul. In a famous but incorrect application of the embarrassment criterion, many exegetes, led by John Meier, have argued that v9 records a historical fact of Jesus' baptism by John. Ostensibly, this is because later writers such as the authors of Matthew, John, and Luke, as well as certain non-canonical gospels, all of whom depend on the Gospel of Mark, were uncomfortable with the straightforward narration of Jesus' baptism at John's hands, since it implied that Jesus might be both subordinate to John and sinful. Note, for example, that in Matthew John first demurs, then finally agrees only after Jesus reassures him that it is permissable.
In the Gospel of John this "embarrassment" peaks, as John the Baptist merely witnesses to Jesus, and does not baptize him. Meier's (1987) defines the "embarrassment" criterion thusly:
After reviewing the progressively greater degree of embarrassment evinced by the Gospel writers, Meier concludes
Meier makes several obvious errors. The story of John the Baptist comes from the writer of Mark, not the early Church. There is no evidence that the writer of Mark was the least bit embarrassed about the connection. He treats the Baptist with reverence throughout the Gospel, and notes that at his death his body was taken care of by his disciples, in sharp contrast to Jesus. Whatever later writers may have thought of the story that the writer of Mark recorded/invented, it has no bearing on whether the writer of Mark found the story "embarrassing" In fact, his use of it may be regarded as prima facie evidence that he did not find it objectionable. Further, Meier dates Mark at about 70, when no "Church" was in existence. Meier is thus simply retrojecting his Church back into history. It should also be noted that the assumption here is also that early Christians were proto-orthodox Christians, and that the Gospel of Mark does not emerge from some non-proto-orthodox tradition which was perfectly comfortable with a baptism by John. In other words, the scholarly axioms used in constructing the embarrassment criterion privilege certain forms of Christianity over others in understanding the text. In sum, based on the embarrassment criterion, there is no reason to imagine that Jesus' baptism by John is historical. The most likely explanation, based on the facts assembled above, is that the writer has grabbed John the Baptist out of history, perhaps from a source like Josephus' Antiquities, and inserted him here to play the role of OT prophet whose purpose is to anoint the True King. As a number of exegetes have pointed out, the writer's Christology is Adoptionist. This means that the writer of Mark probably did not believe that Jesus was born the Son of God, but presents him as an ordinary human being whom God adopted as his Son. Because Adoptionism came to be considered heretical, as Bart Ehrman (1996) notes, v11 spawned many variants in the textual traditions as scribes struggled to overcome its heretical tendencies. Many exegetes have observed that the later writings preserve a tradition of conflict between the followers of John and the followers of Jesus. Perhaps the writer of Mark knew of that tradition and was simply attempting a solution to the problem: "If you can't beat 'em, assimilate them to your tradition." Or perhaps he intended to reply to that perception of a problem, and claim that actually there was no trouble between them at all, and each respected the other. In sum, looking at the overall dependence of the pericope on the OT at both the structural and detail levels, the presence of the supernatural, the lack of external witnesses to the story, and the contradiction by later sources that picture John and Jesus as heads of rival sects, there is no support for any relationship between Jesus and John in the Gospel of Mark. The structure of this pericope is quite simple:
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| 12: The Spirit immediately drove him out into the wilderness. 13: And he was in the wilderness forty days, | tempted by Satan; and he was with the wild beasts; and the angels ministered to him. |
| 12: The Spirit immediately drove him out into the wilderness. |
| v12:
Fowler (1996) points out that it is the spirit that is driving Jesus
here, consistent with the theme of Jesus being possessed. |
| 13: And he was in the wilderness forty days, tempted by Satan; and he was with the wild beasts; and the angels ministered to him. |
| v13: It was a common motif in anquity (Gundry 1993, p55) for divine men to find themselves in the wilderness with the wild beasts. | |||
v13:
Some exegetes have seen Isa 11:6-9, which posits a paradise in the
future, as laying behind this scene.
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v13:
Exodus 23:20 also contains a ministering angel. The writer of Mark has
just cited that verse at the beginning of the gospel.
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v13: Van
Henten (1999) points out that the writer of Mark does not specify that
Jesus actually passed the test. Instead, the motif of testing returns
at other points in the Gospel, such as in the Garden of Gethsemane. Ven
Henten concludes;
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| v13: A
few conservative exegetes believe that Matthew was the first gospel,
and argue that the use of the definite article the (angels) indicates that the
writer was thinking of Matthew, since no angels have been mentioned in
Mark prior to this point. However, as will be seen below, angels are
present in any of several OT source passages for this pericope. |
| 14: Now after John was arrested,
Jesus came
into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God, 15: and saying, "The time is
fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent, and believe in
the
gospel." 16: And passing along by the Sea of Galilee, he saw Simon and
Andrew the brother of Simon casting a net in the sea; for they were
fishermen.
17: And Jesus |
said to them, "Follow me and I will make you become fishers of men."18: And immediately they left their nets and followed him. 19: And going on a little farther, he saw James the son of Zeb'edee and John his brother, who were in their boat mending the nets. 20: And immediately he called them; and they left their father Zeb'edee in the boat with the hired servants, and followed him. |
| 14: Now after John was arrested, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God, |
| v14,
"Jesus came into Galilee" without any hint that Jesus is
returning (v9) is often seen as a continuity error. Indeed, some have
seen
in this the real beginning of the Gospel, arguing that the earlier
verses
are later interpolations, up to and including "Now after John was
arrested...." |
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| v14:
the RSV has chosen "arrested" to translate the Greek verb paradidomi,
which more correctly means "handed over" and echoes the language later
to be used of Jesus' fate (Senior 1987, p17). This common
mistranslation is a good example of the way doctrinal interpretations
of the text affect the way the text gets translated. |
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| v14: Galilee: debate continues over whether and how stable Galilee was during this period. Several Jewish rebels, such as Judas of Gamala and Judas of Galilee and his sons, Simon and Jacob, came from this area (note the curious coincidence of names -- Simon, Jacob (James in English) and Judas -- some scholars have speculated that Judas' "Fourth Way" was actually Christianity, but there is no solid evidence for that (see Raskin 2002). During the revolt of 66-70CE, Galileans around John of Gischala formed the core of an anti-Roman army. Herod Antipas' construction of a new capital at Tiberias may also signal that he felt uneasy (see discussion of Galilee in Theissen and Merz 1998, p173-5). None of this unrest makes its way into the gospel of Mark. In this Gospel Jesus drifts across a landscape bereft of political ferment and economic tension. | |||||||||||||||||
v14.
Galilee: Burton Mack (1995) writes:
Nicholas Taylor (2003) sums up this point:
Against this, recent work by Mark A. Chancey (2003) has called the idea of a strongly gentile-influenced Galilee a myth, pointing out that both archaeological and textual evidence confirm a Galilee that was overwhelmingly Jewish:
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v14:
Galilee: Except for Jesus' prediction of where he will return
to
after his resurrection in 14:28 and 16.7, all other
instances of this word
occur in verses apparently created by the writer of Mark. Since 14:28
and 16.7 are obviously Markan
creation as
well, and 6:21 is about Herod, not Jesus, there is no reason to assume
from the evidence in Mark that Jesus
and Galilee have a connection. Again, nowhere does "Galilee" occur in a
place
where scholars think the writer of Mark was working off of an earlier
source. Here are the mentions of Galilee in Mark (all cites RSV):
Note that of these ten mentions, two are supernatural in
nature and
are historically meaningless, being creations of the author or his
source (a few exegetes think one or both are interpolations). Of the
remaining eight, one relates to
Herod (6:21), and one refers back to the ministry in Galilee in a
retrospective (15:41). Of the six left, four instances occur in Chapter
1. "Galilee" in Mark is essentially a feature of Mark 1.
Note the mention of important themes in Mark, including the sea (in the gospel of Mark, the narrative function of the Sea of Galilee is to divide the Jews and the Gentiles. When Jesus crosses it, he is crossing from one ethnos to the other), gentiles, and the Jordan. In the Gospel of Matthew this association is made plain in Mt 4:15. Additionally, the rest of Isaiah 9 provides the writer of Mark with the motivation to place Jesus in Galilee:
Isaiah appears to predict that the Davidic Messiah will honor Galilee in the future. A minor piece of support for this is that the writer has Jesus preaching in "their" synagogues, implying some degree of separation between the writer and Galilee. Synagogues are unknown in the archaeological record for this period from Galilee. Another interesting piece of support for this is the fact that Jesus is never called Jesus of Galilee in Mark, but rather, Jesus the Nazarene (Peter, however, is identified as a Galilean). The writer of Mark is vague on Galilean geography and never mentions its two major cities, Sepphoris and Tiberias. Finally, the Pauline letters are silent on Jesus' association with Galilee, as are important early writings such as Barnabas and 1 Clement. Given the key role played by the Old Testament, especially Isaiah, in the formation of the Gospel of Mark, it seems most probable that Jesus' association with Galilee is a creation of that author using the Old Testament. Additional influences on the writer of Mark may have been popular ideas of demonology contained in works like 1 Enoch and the Book of Tobit, in which Galilee plays a key role. George Nickelsburg (1988) points out that the first part of Tobit is set in Upper Galilee, which is also the location of key episodes in the Enoch cycle. Both of these books discuss angelic clashes with demons. The writer of Mark appears to be aware of the Book of Tobit, which may form part of the background to the Tomb scene in Mk 16:1-8. 1 Enoch was influential on Christianity and is actually cited in the New Testament. |
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Galilee. While the non-Jewishness of Galilee is stressed in some
accounts, Myers (1988, p57) argues that that when Caligula attempted to
install a statue of himself in the Jerusalem Temple, there was an
agricultural strike in Galilee. Here is what Josephus says of the
affair (Antiquities 18,8,3):
However, the passage in question, while stating that the Jews met Petronius in Tiberias (in Galilee), fails to state where those Jews came from. Originally the "many tens of thousands" of Jews had gone all the way to Ptolemais, a city in Syria outside of Jewish territories, to complain about Caligula's statue. Josephus then has Petronius hasten to Tiberias in Galilee, where the "many tens of thousands of Jews" meet him again. When Petronius warns them that continued defiance will only result in war, they offer their necks to the sword, in protest. Josephus avers that they did this for 40 days, even though it was the planting season. While it is easy to imagine a small embassy of Jews following Petronius around, imploring him to turn away from the plan to put the statute in the Temple, it is difficult to imagine hordes of ordinary Jews trekking across Judea, Galilee, and Syria to meet with Petronius twice, and remain in a position of suicidal non-violent protest for forty days during the time when they needed to be planting. The details of crowds, the telltale fairy-tale motif of 40 days, and refusal to plant, are in all probability inventions of Josephus (though he twice further mentions the failure to plant, and Roman concern with it, in subsequent sections). In any case, although a portion of the events take place in Galilee, nowhere does Josephus state the Jews came from there. |
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"Jesus." Jesus' character and personality as portrayed in the
Gospel of Mark follow ancient literary conventions of Hellenistic
popular literature in showing Jesus as an essentially one-dimensional
being in the Son of God role. After reviewing ancient literary
conventions for how they can throw light on the Gospel of Mark, Mary
Ann Tolbert (1989) concludes:
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Theodore Weeden (1971) writes
In Weeden's view, the characters and events are the medium through which the Hellenistic writer expresses the ideas of his composition. Weeden also notes that the writer of Mark never comments personally or speaks directly to the reader, with the exception of Mk 13:14. |
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"Gospel of God." The phrase also occurs in Romans 1:1 and 15:16, as
well as 1 Thess 2:2 and 2:9. |
| 15: and saying, "The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God is at hand; repent, and believe in the gospel." |
| v15:
The Greek for "believe in" occurs nowhere else in Mark, once in
John, and then nowhere else in all of Greek literature or Greek papyri
(Gundry 1993, p70). |